What's your problem man? And there's no real 'proof' that Proto Indo-European is from Eastern Europe!
I never claimed that Indo-European is a race terminology. But according to me this linguistic group was born in West Asia among J2a community and spread into Central Asia and Europe.
There is the proof that R1a-z83 is at it's highest frequency in Eastern Europe. There is also this the fact Lithuanian is an the most Archaic language along with Sanskrit(although sanskrit was preserved because of the upper castes in India).
Well your certainly treating Indo-European like a one group. J2a was never a indo-european haplogroup, there is no J2a in Western Europe, Northern Europe or Eastern Europe. It is only found in South-eastern due to Neothilic expansions.
Here from wiki:
[quote]Out of 10 human male remains assigned to the Andronovo horizon from the Krasnoyarsk region, 9 possessed the R1a Y-chromosome haplogroup and one C haplogroup (xC3). mtDNA haplogroups of nine individuals assigned to the same Andronovo horizon and region were as follows: U4 (2 individuals), U2e, U5a1, Z, T1, T4, H, and K2b.
90% of the Bronze Age period mtDNA haplogroups were of west Eurasian origin and the study determined that at least 60% of the individuals overall (out of the 26 Bronze and Iron Age human remains' samples of the study that could be tested) had light hair and blue or green eyes.[8]
quote]
That is my whole point to begin with, the Indo-Europeans in Europe were of a western Eurasian stock with a strong North-Euro component. They were mixed with Paleothilic Europeans. The only "real europeans" are probably Scanadavians and Balkaners, even then their IE component gives some some west asian. So do you see what I mean, that Proto-Indo-Europeans when formed were from Europe, but they always had a strong west- Eurasian component, or atleast the Indo-Iranian indo-europeans.
